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Exam Code: VCP-511
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 288 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.17 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: VCP510PSE
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization PSE)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 318 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a
configuration issue "SSH for the host has been enabled." What are two ways to clear this warning?
(Choose two.)
A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

NO.3 An administrator selects the Profile Compliance tab of a vSphere cluster, then selects Check
Compliance Now. Which features requirements are not checked by this?
A. vMotion
B. Fault Tolerance
C. DRS
D. Host Profiles
Answer: D

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10. An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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11. An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine
and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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12. Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)
13. An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

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14. An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver.
It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity,
performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs - Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can
guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter
Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage
Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the
system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents.
You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores.
You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same
level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already
has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one
userdefined capability at a time.
15. An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk.
Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on
demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of
the virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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16. Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externa
lId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID38F
95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
17. An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible
de-duplication store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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18. Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion
Compatibility (EVC) is used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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19. What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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20. An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options
are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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21. An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update.
After confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine
and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose
two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk"
extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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22. An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.virtualizationadmin.com/articles-tutorials/vmware-esx-and-vspherearticles/vmotion-dr
s-high-availability/enhanced-vmotion-compatibility-primer.html (8th para)
23. Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using
Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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24. An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere
environment. The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA).
What would cause the remediation to fail?
A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has
been put into Maintenance Mode.
B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.
C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not
supported.
D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.
Answer: C

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25. ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from
this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine's that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to
them, swapping and page sharing does not occur.
You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance.
If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the
amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has.
By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory
without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on.
The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB
reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file.
The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.

NO.4 An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic
information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.
Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)
A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.
Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export
Diagnostic Data. Select a location and click OK.
C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.
D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.
Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual
machine. The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host
containing the virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a
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A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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Exam Code: DP-022W
Exam Name: Veritas (Data Protection Implementation for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
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Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The VERITAS device drivers have been installed on a Microsoft Windows server.
What must be done before configuring any devices?
A. run vmquery
B. run bpconfig
C. reboot the computer
D. restart NetBackup services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

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NO.3 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database
agent. Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In
addition, the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
Answer: C

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NO.4 The master server host properties option "Free Browse" in the "General" tab will
allow ________.
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.6 You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which two commands allow management of storage units through the command
line?(Choose two.)
A. bpstuadd
B. bpstulist
C. bpsturemove
D. bpstudelete
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these
systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a "Remote
Terminal" session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
"Host Properties", right-click and select "Client Install"
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
Answer: C

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NO.9 A disk-based storage unit must be created for use in a small number of backup
policies.
Which action is taken to ensure that this storage unit is used only by the intended
policies?
A. enable the "On demand only" option for the disk storage unit and target this specific
storage unit in each of the intended backup policies.
B. configure the disk storage unit as the destination storage unit in each of the intended
backup policies
C. add only the intended policies to the "Authorized Policies" tab of the storage unit
D. add the disk storage unit to a unique "Storage Unit Group" and target this specific
storage unit group in each of the intended backup policies
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
Answer: A, C

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NO.11 Which NetBackup command do you use to help verify NetBackup client
configuration and network connectivity?
A. Bpclntcmd -ip
B. Bpclntcmd -hn
C. Bpclntcmd -pn
D. Bpclntcmd -listall
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as "Standard" or "Ms_windows-NT"
B.The policy must have "Collect true image restore information" and "with move
detection" selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the "Synthetic Backup" option
selected
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.13 Which directory path on the client can the client's patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
Answer: D

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NO.16 An administrator planning a new NetBackup installation has 10,000 tapes in a single
library and 27 tape pools.
Which NetBackup feature allows automatic assignment of free tapes to any of the 27
pools when the pool runs out of tapes?
A. enabling a scratch pool
B. setting up bar code rules for each pool
C. turning on Media Multiplexing for each pool
D. enabling auto-assign media in the Universal Attributes tab
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D

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NO.18 Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup"
B. individually run "bprecover -1" against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability"
D. in the GUI, check the "Activity Monitor" for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.19 Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B

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NO.20 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select "Manual
Backup"
B. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Backup NetBackup Catalog "
C. from the command line, run "bpbackup" with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run "bpbackupdb" with appropriate switches
Answer: B, D

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Exam Name: Tibco (Architecting Composite Applications and Services with TIBCO)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two statements are true with respect to the granularity of a service? (Choose two.)
A.Fine-grained services are likely to be usable in many places, so you can ignore their access overhead.
B.Fine-grained service benefits may be outweighed by their access overhead.
C.Coarse-grained services are likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality
D.Coarse-grained services are less likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality.
Answer:BD

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about namespaces in the XSD standard? (Choose two.)
A.Namespaces are intended as descriptive information for human users.
B.Changes to namespaces are commonly used to identify major version changes in an XSD.
C.An XML file can be validated with two XSDs, which differ by namespace but have the same element
definitions.
D.Two XSD files, which differ by namespace but with the same elements definitions, define different
schemas.
Answer:BD

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NO.3 Which three aspects of design must be defined by the architect using a Total Architecture approach?
(Choose three.)
A.system components
B.security policies
C.communication paths and communication mechanisms
D.interaction with human participants
E.use of Common Data Model schemas in service interfaces
Answer:ACD

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NO.4 What is an important practical benefit of service discovery?
A.It allows programs to dynamically discover new features as needed.
B.It allows internal development groups to find functionality that can be reused.
C.It allows services to discover potential consumers using the UDDI protocol.
D.It allows governance groups to discover functionality that could become a service.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about a WSDL instance? (Choose three.)
A.It describes the location of a service, but not the individual operations.
B.It does not require concrete communications endpoints
C.A message may contain more than one part, such as a purchase order and an invoice.
D.An action supported by a service is known as its binding.
E.A port type (interface) is an abstract set of operations.
Answer:BCE

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about processes defined with the Business Process Execution
Language for Web Services (WS-BPEL)? (Choose two.)
A.Process faults in WS-BPEL always return SOAP faults.
B.WS-BPEL processes are always initiated by Web Service calls.
C.Data mappings in a WS-BPEL process require an external service invocation.
D.All functionality used by a WS-BPEL process must be provided in the form of Web Services.
Answer:BD

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NO.7 A TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus-based order fulfillment application makes outbound requests to an
inventory service. Based on the geography and quantity of the order, the request must be routed to one of
a number of different specialized inventory service instances.
What are two possible ways to route the requests in ActiveMatrix? (Choose two.)
A.configure the order fulfillment application to reference the different inventory service instances
B.use XPath to create conditional references from the order fulfillment composite to each inventory
service instance
C.create a Mediation Flow containing route tasks and route cases
D.create a dynamic binding to the inventory service and use XPath to compute the routing
Answer:CD

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NO.8 You are deploying a Web Service that is bound to a JMS transport on multiple TIBCO ActiveMatrix
nodes.
What can you do to achieve service scalability?
A.reference a JMS topic in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
B.reference a JMS queue in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
C.configure a routed messaging topology with a multi-hop zone
D.configure queue-to-queue bridging without specifying a selector
Answer:C

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NO.9 What are two essential elements of a reference architecture? (Choose two.)
A.a concrete deployment model
B.an abstracted architecture pattern
C.a common data model
D.an abstracted process model
Answer:BD

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NO.10 Requirements call for a standards-compliant messaging solution.
Which TIBCO product best meets this requirement?
A.TIBCO BusinessEvents
B.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus
C.TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
E.TIBCO Enterprise Messaging Server
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which two statements reflect the realities about using common data models? (Choose two.)
A.A common data model provides a single representation of each concept that is used everywhere.
B.The goal of common data models is to minimize the number of representations of each concept.
C.The use of comprehensive data structures that combine many concepts simplifies interface design.
D.Enterprises typically require more than one representation for each concept.
Answer:BD

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NO.12 What is the root element of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus design?
A.SCA component
B.SCA composite
C.mediation flow
D.Spring implementation type
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which two interaction patterns are supported in TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus? (Choose two.)
A.Synchronous In-Out with SOAP/JMS
B.Asynchronous In-Out with SOAP/HTTP
C.Synchronous Out-In with XML over JMS
D.Asynchronous Out-Only with XML over JMS
Answer:AD

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NO.14 In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D

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NO.15 When a single instance of a service provider is no longer capable of handling the volume of activity due
to the business process complexity required to handle each request, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A.XML compression reduces the load on the service providers.
B.Scalability can be improved using technology such as HTTP load balancers.
C.The feature should be re-architected as it is not a good candidate for Web Services.
D.Using a JMS-based transport can help improve scalability.
Answer:BD

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NO.16 Which three categories of information should be found in a domain information model? (Choose
three.)
A.concepts
B.detailed attributes
C.attribute datatypes
D.identifiers
E.relationship multiplicity
Answer:ADE

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NO.17 Which two composition styles can be used to define a composite application? (Choose two.)
A.orchestration
B.integration
C.choreography
D.collaboration
Answer:AC

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NO.18 Which three characteristics define a Service Component Architecture component type? (Choose
three.)
A.the implementation technology of the component
B.the services that are provided by the component
C.the properties of the component
D.the binding types of the component
E.the references that are made by the component
Answer:BCE

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NO.19 What are three things that can be managed via runtime policies? (Choose three.)
A.service granularity
B.request logging
C.service ownership
D.design versioning
E.access control
F.usage auditing
Answer:BEF

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NO.20 When wrapping a backend system, what does a Web Service always provide that the native system
interface does not?
A.standardized service operation semantics
B.an HTTP-based interface
C.a common data model
D.access independent of implementation technology
Answer:D

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Exam Code: OG0-092
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Part 2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 48 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of
acquisitions.
Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between
headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and
financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost
opportunities to "leverage the synergies" that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At
present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common
application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has
different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the
point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.
As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to
consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate
Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer
information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the
company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online
services offered to clients and trading partners.
The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is
to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be
involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board
to oversee and govern the architecture.
After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX
has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.
The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.
Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario
You are serving as the Chief Architect.
You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the
Corporate Board's concern is addressed.
Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory and security policy
requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is
communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security
considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications
and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.
B. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their
impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for
Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will
address the Board's concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the
solution in the ERP system that is being developed.
C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to
understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on
current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team
be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.
D. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern by examining the potential impacts on business
goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to
include an emphasis on the Board's concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that
security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale
commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs,
California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different
manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet
each manufacturers design specifications.
Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics.
However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for
precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight,
increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a
proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to
protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.
Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional
Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer cosponsor the
Enterprise Architecture program.
Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated
manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade
assemblies. They have recently updated to TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise
Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and
certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined a standard approach
for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance
tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for
immediate implementation at each plant.
An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new
Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern
that a uniform process be employed at each site to ensure consistency.
Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario
You are the Lead Architect for this activity.
You have been asked to recommend the best approach to adopt to address the Chief Engineer's concern.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board should modify the
Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to
meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the
modified Architecture Definition.
B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal envelopment projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board grant a
dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their
local needs.
C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize amemorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You ensure that the
Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers
whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process
to meet their local needs.
D. You create an Architecture Contract to govern the implementation and migration process at each site. If
the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You
ensure that the contract addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and
risk management. You then schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to
ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. Based on the results,
you ensure that the Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture
Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization
to customize the process to meet their local needs.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine
Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain
and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase
in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.
This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are
striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the
effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory
requirements of the countries in the target markets.
The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project
to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its
product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.
The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for
several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development
Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with
extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in
their target markets.
The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology
Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly
sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each
architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each
domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.
The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.
Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.
As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness
Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks
associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of
the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have
been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information
about the subjects who were participating in the trials.
You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning
phases.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target
Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus
before proceeding.
B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates
the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will directthe team to
develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select
Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact
Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.
C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and
identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be
satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the
Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.
D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic
direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio
with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants
has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling,
and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.
Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all
of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was
determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII
and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the
Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the
functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the
plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a
third-party contractor could provide those staff.
The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature,
well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF
9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the
Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the
initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the
transformation.
The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has
been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some
of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and
production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how
these concerns can be addressed.
Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.
One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of
IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These
now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.
You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust
solution.
[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and
defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control
Technical Diversity.
B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change
Management.
C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared,
Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.
D. Information Management is Everybody's Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology
Independence, Responsive Change Management.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scenario: Global Mobile 1
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and
acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions,
and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.
Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer
retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has
published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air
Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in
nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers.
But, customer satisfaction has remained low.
The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project
to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a
good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was
used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.
The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF
9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.
The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged
Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but
there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate
Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business
outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate
Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current
operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and
expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future
investments at all company facilities worldwide.
Refer to Global Mobile scenario
You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the
implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)
A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the
Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's
TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to
planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.
B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based
Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal
scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and
cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.
C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's TOGAF-based Enterprise
Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure
program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based
Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be
utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.
D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based
Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not
appropriate for a private sector company.
Answer: B

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