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Exam Code: P_ADM_SEC_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential loss.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message server.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Human Capital Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: C-TAW12-70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 334 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is conined in the system variatable sy-Linsz?
A.Row count of the current line
B.Height of the current line
C.Width of the current line
D.Size of vertical bars in your list
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is true about the following code?
A.The Module Validate is processed if both FLIGHT and CARRID are other than the initial value
B.The Module Validate is processed if at least one of the fields FLIGHT or CARRID are other than the
initial value
C.The Module Validate is processed only if both FLIGHT and CARRID are initial values
D.The Module Validate is never processed
Answer: B

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NO.3 Identify the different type categories in the ABAP dictionary (More than one answer is correct)
A.table Types
B.Da Models
C.Structures
D.Da definitions
E.Da Elements
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.4 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.5 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?
A.Enhancements to the SAP Sndard
B.Append Structures
C.Customizing
D.Modifications to the SAP Sndard
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which transaction is used to make dictionary adjustments when upgrading versions of SAP?
A.SPAU
B.SP01
C.SPDD
D.CMOD
Answer: C

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NO.9 What type of memory is typically used as default values for screen fields?
A.SAP memory
B.ABAP/4 memory
C.Shared Memory
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is true about calling a screen (More than one answer is correct)
A.A screen can be called from within a function module
B.Screens should be called from PBO modules
C.Screens can be called from PAI modules
D.A screen can be called from a report program
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.11 Makr the valid asynchronous update bunding technique.
A.UPDATE
B.CALL FUNCTION.. .. IN UPDATE SK
C.PERFORM ASYNCHRONOUS
D.PERFORM.. .. ON COMMIT
Answer: B

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NO.12 Mark the three system fields that are continuously mainined by the list
(More than one answer is correct)
A.SY-LINSZ
B.SY-TITLE
C.SY-LINNO
D.SY-COLNO
E.SY-PAGNO
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.13 Where does information come from when you press F1 on a screen field?
A.Da element documention
B.Domain short text
C.Search help
D.Domain Help values
Answer: A

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NO.14 What controls the dialogue behavior of a search help?(More than one answer is correct)
A.Admin da
B.DPOS
C.SPOS
D.LPOS
E.Value Range
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 What is true about a logical dabase program?
A.Any Node that is accessed requires the Node to be defined in the NODES stement
B.The Put Stement in the LDB provides da for the Get Event in the report program
C.Get Event in the report program requests da from the Put Stement
D.You can access hierarchically higher tables in your program even though there is no table stement for
the table
Answer: B

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NO.16 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.17 You have issued a Set Title bar in the PBO of your screen, Hon long Will the title remain active?
A.Until the Next screen change
B.Until the next Set TitleBar stement
C.Until the next DB Luw
Answer: B

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NO.18 In what case are bstrips good candidates?(More than one answer is correct)
A.When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B.When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C.When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen
Answer: A, C

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NO.19 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.20 A screen field has been dynamically changed in a dialog program. When does it get re-initialized?
A.At the end of the transaction
B.Only when the program encounters more code to modify the field attributes
C.At PAI execution
D.At PBO execution
Answer: D

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NO.21 Mark the valid usage of Read stement(More than one answer is correct)
A.DO. Read Line SY-INDEX. ENDDO
B.Read Line 3 of Current Page
C.Read Line 3 of Next Page
D.Read Current Line of table IB
Answer: A, B

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NO.22 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.23 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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NO.24 How does a customer benefit by using SSCR?
A.To log enhancements made by a development user
B.To log Customizing made by a development user
C.To log modifications made by a development user
Answer: C

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NO.25 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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Exam Code: C-TBW45-70
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business
knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose
three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large
databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a
broadcasting distribution type? Data Bursting: (Choose two)
A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static
snap-shots
of data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The APD (Analysis Process Designer) in SAP NetWeaver BI provides a mechanism for reading
data
from a source and then transferring the analytical results back out to a data target. In this
scenario, which of the following are possible data targets of the APD? (Choose two)
A. Standard DataStore Objects
B. VirtualProviders
C. Meta Data Repository
D. DataStore Objects for direct update
E. InfoObject master data tables
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is
a potential conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area
occupied by the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second
query.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of
the
following formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 The design mode of the BEx Analyzer allows you to: (Choose two)
A. Add your own navigation controls such as drop down lists and check boxes.
B. Add in your own broadcast scheduling options so users receive the workbook by email and in
their SAP NetWeaver Portal role.
C. Insert results from other data providers into the same workbook.
D. Access a toolbox of predefined macros that can automate common tasks.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: C-TADM51-70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 (C_TADM51_70))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java?
(Choose three.)
A. A UDDI provider
B. The database of the AS Java
C. A client of an AS ABAP based SAP system
D. A directory server (LDAP)
E. A file (also called secure store)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the
registration process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? (Choose two.)
A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change
in the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.
B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.
C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in
Visual Administrator.
D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.
E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system? (Choose
two.)
A. Screens (Dynpros)
B. Buffer areas
C. Programs
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer:A,C

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NO.5 Regarding the object, TemSe, of the SAP spool system, which of the following statements are
correct? (Choose two.)
A. TemSe stores, for example, spool data.
B. TemSe always stores the spool requests in the database.
C. The instance parameter "rspo/store_location" determines where TemSe data is stored.
D. TemSe is always an operating system file.
Answer:A,C

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NO.6 In SAP NetWeaver 7.0, several components need the ABAP and the JAVA stack. The
customer has
decided to install both stacks in one database. A default schema user is created for each stack. In
which Oracle database table are these users physically stored and how are they named? The SAP
is LNX and the instance number is 03. (Choose two.)
A. TablE.dba_users; JAVA schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>DB
B. TablE.dba_user; Java user: ORALNXDB
C. TablE.users; ABAP and JAVA Schema owner: SAPLNX
D. TablE.dba_users; ABAP schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>
E. TablE.dba_user; ABAP schema owner: ORALNX
Answer:A,D

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NO.7 The Integrated Log Viewer is presented as a service of SAP NetWeaver AS Java. It provides
runtime control for working with log messages. Which of the following statements about the
Integrated Log Viewer is true?
A. The Integrated Log Viewer can merge logs within an SAP NetWeaver AS Java instance.
B. The Integrated Log Viewer provides options for log and trace configuration. You can add new
locations and categories and change the configuration of the existing ones.
C. Log Viewer is the right tool for setting and modifying Severity levels.
Answer:A

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NO.8 You are using the profile maintenance (transaction code RZ10) to configure profiles and
profile
parameters of an AS ABAP+Java based SAP system. Which profiles of the system you can maintain
in RZ10?
A. You can maintain the default profile as well as the start and instance profiles of the ABAP+Java
application servers. However, you cannot maintain the start and instance profiles of the Java
central services instance.
B. Only the default profile and the start profiles can be maintained, because the instance profiles
contain AS Java relevant parameters which cannot be maintained by the ABAP programs used in
transaction RZ10.
C. All profiles (start profiles, instance profiles, default profile) of the system can be maintained.
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is correct regarding transport domains and transport
groups in
ABAP-based SAP Systems? (Choose two.)
A. All SAP Systems within one transport group have a common transport directory.
B. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain
table), into which all transports (exports or imports) in the SAP System are logged.
C. All SAP Systems in a transport domain must belong to the same transport group.
D. A transport domain can only be set up if more than one application server is installed.
E. All SAP Systems within one transport domain have RFC destinations (names beginning with
"TMS...") pointing to the same transport domain controller system.
Answer:A,E

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NO.10 Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? (Choose two.)
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer:A,D

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Exam Code: C-HANAIMP-1
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA 1.0 )
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which delivered role is mandatory for a system administrator in SAP HANA?
A. SYS_ADMIN
B. CONTENT_ADMIN
C. SAP_ALL
D. IC MODELER
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can you evaluate the speed of a calculation within the database? (Choose two)
A. Use the Data Preview function in the SAP HANA studio.
B. Execute a Web Intelligence report and check the duration of the previous refresh.
C. Execute an information space using SAP BusinessObjects Explorer.
D. Write and execute an appropriate SQL statement.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and
interact with shared information?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are benefits of using a business layer on top of SAP HANA? (Choose two)
A. An extra layer of granular security
B. Improved database calculation speed
C. Fast throughput via BICS connectivity
D. Users can use business names instead of technical names
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 If you want to create or drop tables in a schema, which privilege type do you need?
A. SYSTEM
B. ANALYTIC
C. PACKAGE
D. SQL
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the key benefits of using SAP BusinessObjects Explorer with SAP HANA? (Choose
three)
A. You do not need to create your own queries to access information.
B. You can easily create your own queries to access information.
C. You can access information for data discovery intuitively.
D. You can execute ad-hoc business analytics quickly.
E. You can easily create an IDT business layer.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which new connection type is available as of SAP BusinessObjects Data Services 4.0?
A. Operational Data Provider
B. BAPI function calls
C. IDOCs
D. Read table via ABAP data flows
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have a Web Intelligence report that requires data from SAP HANA filtered for a specific
year.
Where do you apply the filter for optimal performance?
A. In the universe
B. In the Web Intelligence report
C. In the analytic view
D. In the calculation view using an attribute value variable
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following tasks must you perform before you build a business layer within the
SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool (IDT) on top of SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. Publish the connection to CMS.
B. Build a query to test the connection.
C. Build a relational connection to SAP HANA.
D. Build an OLAP connection to SAP HANA.
E. Build a data foundation.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 Which of the following properties of a derived attribute view can you modify?
A. Description
B. Description mapping
C. Calculated attributes
D. Filters
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_731
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate-ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 AT SELECTION-SCREEN

NO.2 INITIALIZATION

NO.3 An executable ABAP program contains a standard selection screen and uses the event blocks
AT
SELECTION-SCREEN, AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT, INITIALIZATION, START-OFSELECTION.
In which sequence will ABAP runtime call these event blocks?
A. 1. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT

NO.4 START-OF-SELECTION
B. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
4. START-OF-SELECTION
C. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
4. START-OF-SELECTION
D. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. START-OF-SELECTION
4. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
Answer: C

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2. Which of the following tasks does the BADI implementing class perform?
A. Filtering
B. Sequencing
C. Inserting
D. Deleting
Answer: A

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3. Which boundary conditions lead to improved access time to an internal table? (Choose three)
A. Left justified part of key for sorted tables
B. Fully qualified key for sorted tables
C. Index access for hashed tables
D. Left justified part of key for hashed tables
E. Index access for standard tables
Answer: A,B,E

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4. Which of the following predefined ABAP types is incomplete?
A. F
B. P
C. XSTRING
D. STRING
Answer: B

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5. When should you use a hashed internal table? (Choose two)
A. When accessing mainly single records
B. When accessing by secondary key
C. When accessing using the left-justified part of the key
D. When accessing always by primary key
E. When accessing by index
Answer: A,D

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6. In which modularization units can you use parameters? (Choose three)
A. Event blocks such as START-OF-SELECTION
B. Function modules
C. Subroutines
D. Dialog modules such as PBO modules
E. Methods
Answer: B,C,E

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7. You have implemented a class CL_CUSTOMER in which you defined a private attribute. From
where can you access this attribute directly? (Choose two)
A. From all methods of all subclasses of CL_CUSTOMER
B. From all methods of the class CL_CUSTOMER
C. From all methods of a class to which CL_CUSTOMER grants friendship
D. From any program using the class CL_CUSTOMER
Answer: B,C

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8. You perform an update task using update function modules and detect an error in the
program that
calls the update function modules. Which statement can be used to discard all update requests for
the current SAP LUW? (Choose two)
A. EXIT.
B. ROLLBACK WORK.
C. MESSAGE axxx(nnn).
D. MESSAGE exxx(nnn).
E. DELETE UPDATE.
Answer: B,C

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9. What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. The program is terminated.
B. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
C. A type E message is displayed.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: B

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10. What is the purpose of implicit enhancement points?
A. To add fields to an SAP database table
B. To add code to a standard SAP program
C. To change code in a standard SAP program
D. To create a secondary index for an SAP database table
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C-HANASUP-1
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
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Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following can you determine using the Backup catalog report? (Choose two)
A. The path for the backup files
B. Whether a recovery is possible
C. Which backup files are obsolete
D. When to execute the net backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You granted a user the system privileges INIFILE ADMIN and DATA ADMIN. What does this
allow the user to do?
A. Modify the nameserver_history.trc files.
B. Reset the backup.log file.
C. Modify configuration files.
D. Reset the log.txt file
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which parameters can you configure for an expensive statement trace? (Choose two)
A. Passport trace level
B. Threshold duration
C. Trace status
D. Trace file
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 How can you set configurations at the system level using the SAP HANA studio?
A. Enter values in the System column in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor.
B. Right-click on a system in the Navigator pane and select Open Security from the context menu.
C. Right-click on a setting in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor, select Change, and
enter values for all hosts.
D. Enter values in the Properties view when you use the Overview tab of the Administration editor.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can you restore a default parameter configuration setting in the SAP HANA studio?
(Choose two)
A. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Configure Table, and the Restore
Default.
B. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Change, and then Restore Default.
C. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Delete.
D. Choose Window-Preference-Administration Console and select Restore Defaults.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 For which purposes can you use the Table locks system report?
A. To investigate locked table names
B. To unlock tables
C. To investigate table lock transaction owners
D. To kill locking transactions
Answer: A

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NO.7 An SAP HANA developer receives an error when running an SAP HANA Predictive Analysis
Library procedure. In which of the following files can you find more information?
A. Script server log
B. Index server log
C. Name server log
D. Statistics server log
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are held in SAP HANA used memory? (Choose two)
A. Free memory pool
B. Temporary computations
C. Heap memory
D. Column and row tables
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following can you transport using CTS/CTS+? (Choose two)
A. Analytic privilege
B. Calculation view
C. Index
D. Table
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 In the SAP HANA studio, in which subtab of the Landscape tab of the Administration editor
can you check the statuses of all hosts in a high-availability scenario?
A. Configuration
B. Services
C. Secondary System Replication
D. Redistribution
Answer: A

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NO.11 In the SAP HANA studio Administration Editor, for the following purposes can you use the
Sessions subtab of the Performance tab? (Choose two)
A. To view memory consumption by session
B. To investigate blocking situations
C. To set up session-based alerts
D. To configure the maximum allowed concurrent sessions
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 What do you have to consider when you want to unpartition an SAP HANA table? (Choose
three)
Unpartitioning blocks concurrent read access to the table during the process.
A. An exclusive lock on the table is required.
B. Unpartitioning can table a long time to complete.
C. Only read access is allowed during the unpartitioning process.
D. Only tables of more than 2 billion rows can be unpartitioned.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 In the SAP HANA studio, which of the following SQL thread details can you monitor by using
the Threads subtab of the Performance tab of the Administration editor? (Choose three)
A. The SQL statement
B. The generated data
C. The service name
D. The blocking status
E. The visual execution plan
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Which part of an expensive statement trace would you investigate to identify possible
performance improvements?
A. Statement string
B. Statement length
C. TOTAL_LOCK_WAIT_TIME
D. ALLOC_MEM_SIZE_COLSTORE
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following events can trigger a delta merge? (Choose two)
A. Memory consumption of delta storage drops below a specified limit.
B. The delta log for a columnar table drops below a defined limit.
C. The delta log for a columnar table exceeds a defined limit.
D. Memory consumption of delta storage exceeds a specified limit.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-66
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Name: Isilon (Isilon Certified Storage Professional)
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NO.1 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
Answer: C

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NO.3 What should you name the account that runs the Isilon for vCenter Plug-in? (Choose 1)
A. vapi
B. api
C. vCenter
D. vm
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are configuring a synchronization between two clusters using SyncIQ. You re root directory is
/ifs/data. You create an include statement for /ifs/data/media and an exclude statement of /ifs/data/public.
What will be synchronized to the other cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Nothing will be synchronized.
B. Everything in the ifs/data folder will be synchronized.
C. Everything in the ifs/data folder except the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
D. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder and the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
E. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder will be synchronized.
F. Everything in the ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.6 For what reasons would you increase the default Ethernet frame MTU on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3.)
A. To match the frame size of the client system.
B. To improve overall performance.
C. To increase the LUN I/O performance.
D. There is no good reason to change the default Ethernet frame size. It is automatically optimized for
performance.
E. To provide easier trace captures.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are versions of NFS are enabled by default in an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Versions 1 and 2
B. Versions 1, 2, and 3
C. Versions 2 and 3
D. Versions 3 and 4
E. Versions 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the maximum number of nodes supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. 48
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
E. 144
Answer: E

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NO.11 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The unlicensed version of SmartPools enables you to do what? (Choose 1)
A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B

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NO.13 When setting a new disk pool protection level, what should the administrator do to apply the new
protection level to existing data? (Select the best answer.)
A. The administrator should run the isi protect command to apply the new protection level.
B. The administrator should run the isi migrate command to apply the new protection level.
C. Nothing. The cluster applies the new protection level automatically to existing data.
D. Nothing. You cannot apply new protection level settings until you complete an entire cluster reboot.
Answer: C

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NO.14 How do you enable anti-virus scanning service for an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Click Enable on the Anti-virus Summary page
B. Install an ICAP server
C. Configure all of the settings on the Anti-virus Summary page
D. Install an ICMP server
Answer: C

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NO.15 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
Answer: A

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